Anyone ever looked into a reverse correlation between the incidence of antidepressant prescription, and the social threshold at which a society reaches ‘critical mass’ regarding widespread unrest? Been on my mind the past couple days so I thought I’d ask. Seems like an appropriate place.
Anyone ever looked into a reverse correlation between the incidence of antidepressant prescription, and the social threshold at which a society reaches ‘critical mass’ regarding widespread unrest?
Been on my mind the past couple days so I thought I’d ask. Seems like an appropriate place.