A few years ago, I worked on a job site in California that had prevailing wages. Everyone that worked the same kind of job as me from other companies told me about it and told me to make sure I was paid. I spoke to my company about it and they said they didn’t need to pay me it because I get per diem. (Per diem was like $25/day, prevailing wages were about $75/hour) I wasn’t looking to fight and knew nothing about it so I just let it go. Here I am years later looking to shit on my company for treating me like shit the whole time I’ve been here and Ive always wondered if I got screwed out of money and I look at the ticket and it has the prevailing wage charge and even has my name on the ticket for the wages paid to my company from the client. Am I eligible for those wages? I believe the answer is yes. For reference, I am salaried and I was based out of Texas at the time, so I’m not sure how this all affects prevailing wages. Also is it too late to do anything years later? Any help is much appreciated!!