Sorry for the inconvenience but I stumbled over the topic on reddit (german media doesn't even bother to talk about strikes happening here) and don't quite understand the issue.
Afaik private railroad companies and unions couldn't agree on terms, but how can the government just overrule both? Such thing couldn't be happen in Germany (correct me if I'm wrong).
Are there other examples when this happened in the past? I just wonder how the working class could get any achievements, if the government had always the option to illegalize their right to strike. Or did they just turned to wildcat strikes in this case?
Sorry for my lack of history knowledge in terms of the US workers movement.